Yes, I meant \\( \forall f,g \in \mathbb{N}^\mathbb{N}, f \leq g \Leftrightarrow \\{n \in \mathbb{N} | f(n) > g(n)\\} \\) is finite.

And you are right, It happens to be other Plotkin! But I thank him the effort no less.

And you are right, It happens to be other Plotkin! But I thank him the effort no less.