Anindya wrote:

>**Proof**: (1) is true iff \$$\Phi : \mathcal{X} \times \mathcal{Y} \to \mathcal{V}\$$ is a \$$\mathcal{V}\$$-functor, which is true iff

I think this is a typo too? \$$\Phi : \mathcal{X} \times \mathcal{Y} \to \mathcal{V}\$$ should read \$$\Phi : \mathcal{X}^ {op} \times \mathcal{Y} \to \mathcal{V}\$$