Anindya wrote:

>**Proof**: (1) is true iff \\(\Phi : \mathcal{X} \times \mathcal{Y} \to \mathcal{V}\\) is a \\(\mathcal{V}\\)-functor, which is true iff

I think this is a typo too? \\(\Phi : \mathcal{X} \times \mathcal{Y} \to \mathcal{V}\\) should read \\(\Phi : \mathcal{X}^
{op} \times \mathcal{Y} \to \mathcal{V}\\)