re **Puzzle 280** I think @Reuben is right that we can solve this using the [Eckmann-Hilton argument](https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/Eckmann-Hilton+argument) mentioned [earlier](https://forum.azimuthproject.org/discussion/comment/19025/#Comment_19025) in this course. Here's as far as I've got.

First note that Puzzle 278 is basically an "exchange law":

$(f\otimes g)\circ(h\otimes k) = (f\circ h)\otimes(g\circ k)$

In the special case where \$$f, k : I \to I\$$ and \$$g = h = 1_I\$$ we get

$(f\otimes 1)\circ(1\otimes k) = (f\circ 1)\otimes(1\circ k) = f\otimes k$

But we also have

$f\otimes k = (1\circ f)\otimes(k\circ 1) = (1\otimes k)\circ(f\otimes 1)$

This tells us

$(f\otimes 1)\circ(1\otimes k) = (1\otimes k)\circ(f\otimes 1)$

... which is *almost* \$$f\circ k = k\circ f\$$ but not quite.

I think we need to mess about with with left/right unitors and coherence equations to iron out this final step.